Here's a very good lesson--don't parse 1 verse here or there--the Bible is a narrative, and while quotes/verses from that narrative are nice, in order to get the full meaning, it must be taken as a whole part. First off--I don't disagree with you. I disagree w/your logic on this and how it's presented--bear w/me.
I went and read 1 Corinthians 6:9, and the verses around it as well:
<div class="ubbcode-block"><div class="ubbcode-header">Quote:</div><div class="ubbcode-body"> 9Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the Kingdom of God? Be not deceived: Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor the effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
10nor thieves, nor the covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners shall inherit the Kingdom of God.
11And such were some of you. But ye are washed, ye are sanctified, ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus and by the Spirit of our God.
12"All things are lawful unto me," but all things are not expedient. "All things are lawful for me," but I will not be brought under the power of any.
13"Meats for the belly, and the belly for meats," but God shall destroy both it and them. Now the body is not for fornication, but for the Lord; and the Lord for the body.
14And God hath both raised up the Lord and will also raise up us by His own power.
15Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? Shall I then take the members of Christ and make them the members of a harlot? God forbid!
16What? Know ye not that he who is joined to a harlot is one body with her? "For two," saith He, "shall be one flesh."
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Note the difference in translations from your scripture to this 21st Century King James Version. Not only does it say directly male prostitutes or homosexual offenders (which are both very modern bits of terminology). I'm not saying that's not what it means, I'm saying that most likely Paul did not use that wording, and may have not meant EXACTLY the same thing as the modern translation does. We have to be careful with translations down through the years, I know you're well aware of that.
Also, note in verses 15 & 16 how the disdain for being with a "harlot". IMO--Lot is welcoming the men who are looking to have sex with the men under his roof to do this very thing by offering his daughters up for sexual use. Lot was a very pious man, but I feel this may have been a human mistake on his part as it goes against another warning that Paul had made to the church at Corinth (hundreds of years after Sodom & Gommorah, mind you). He was basically asking them to trade in one sin for the other, like one was worse than the other. Sleeping with a strange woman or "harlot" is no different than sleeping with a man, the Bible states both are sinful, and all sin is equal in the eyes of God.
BTW--the 11th verse in 1 Corinthians 6 is the most important as it is the most merciful and full of good news regarding these sins--that they can be repented of and forgiven. That's where the focus should be in conversations like this, I think, not on how shameful the sins are, but that they can be forgiven just as any other sin. That's important to those who sin.
Also, some would argue that Leviticus is under the old law and was done away with when Christ came to earth, so that those verses are a moot point. Some would--I'm not, but some would.
To be exceptionally clear, I'm not disagreeing, just pointing out some weak points in your presentation, that's all.
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