If morality is a universal constant,that is something intended to be for all people for all time,then it seems to me that it would not change with society.If something is right or wrong now,then it was right or wrong two thousand years ago.If,though,it's a construct of society,that is, it evolved as society evolved for the benefit of society,then it stands to reason that it,too would change and adapt as man, and therefore society changes and adapts.
Let's look at this example from the Bible.Is slavery morally wrong?By today's standards yes, but look cloesly at this excerpt from the apostle Paul's letter to the Ephesians....
Slaves, obey your earthly masters with respect and fear, and with sincerity of heart, just as you would obey Christ. 6Obey them not only to win their favor when their eye is on you, but like slaves of Christ, doing the will of God from your heart. 7Serve wholeheartedly, as if you were serving the Lord, not men, 8because you know that the Lord will reward everyone for whatever good he does, whether he is slave or free.
9And masters, treat your slaves in the same way. Do not threaten them, since you know that he who is both their Master and yours is in heaven, and there is no favoritism with him.
Now if slavery was universally wrong,regardless of the time and geographic area, and if the Bible were truly a book of "perfect" morality for all time, wouldn't the apostle Paul have admonished Ephesian masters to free their slaves once they converted to Christianity?
Obviously slavery was considered OK in Paul's day.I've heard ministers interpret this to mean employers and employees, but this is a rather feeble attempt at reckoning an ancient viewpoint with today's morality.
I manitain that morality is a construct of society and therefore subject to change and adapt with society.