OK, here is some more;

Joseph and Mary were married for a year, and Mary got pregnant inside that year, correct? The article says that in ancient times, the first year is like a trial period, without the sex. That was common practice back then, so it says.

But, its not possible Joseph and Mary got a lil hasty? We all know humans have desires and hormones, why is so far out of the realm of possibility that Joseph and Mary had sex, therefore knocking the virgin birth down the other myths like Krishna and Horus.

Another example of words mysteriously changing definition, with the 'Holy Spirit coming upon you'. The article references the eariler passages, saying the phrase is just a stock phrase, with no set definition.

So the definition for all these ancient sayings were set in stone? That its not possible they used a statement that had been used before, but changed the connotations? Because the statement meant one thing in an earlier passage, it HAS to mean the same thing in the later passages? What sense does that make, when we talk about all the interpretations that can be found from ancient mythological text.